Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 02.07.2025 12:19

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

2025 Stanley Cup Finals Preview: Can Connor McDavid Finally Do It? - The Ringer

There's no rule.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Why do people say African Americans act the way they do because they're poor, when the ones with money act the same?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Everyone says the pet population is out of control. Everyone says you MUST spay or neuter your pets. No one wants to talk about how its almost $1,000 to spay or neuter a pet. Why is it so expensive if its so necessary? Animal shelters do it for free.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.